Jack7
First Post
While the first may hold true if you define "more lucky" as the greater amount of apparent luck, it is obvious to me that 2. does not follow in any way from 1. Note that the first sentence does not make any statement of the actual likelihood of being lucky in the end. It only states that if you are lucky in the end, the amount of perceived luck will be greater.
That is exactly what the equation states. (And the book section I took the equation from by the way. Though the author applied and extended the idea to the subject of survival.) That is however not the only implication implicit (I just made a mathematical alliteration, among other things) within the equation.
Well folks, I gotta get back to work.
Enjoy yourselves.