ValhallaGH
Explorer
Weakened can also reduce a hit to 0 damage. Admittedly, the hit has to be for 1 damage originally, but still.
Negative Damage
- Thread starter honeybunch
- Start date
Weakened can also reduce a hit to 0 damage. Admittedly, the hit has to be for 1 damage originally, but still.
UltimaGabe
First Post
Are you forgetting the most obvious case- a character with an 8 strength attacking with a melee basic attack and rolling a 1?
Mr. Teapot
First Post
My 8 str wizard is wielding a non magic dagger. A monster decides that my melee basic attacks suck (he's right), so freely runs past me, provoking an OA. I take it, roll really well and actually hit. Then I roll damage and get a 1 on a d4. That plus my Str modifier (-1) gives a result of 0.
Then my druid buddy (MCed into wizard) takes his turn, and decides to use Enlarge spell to increase his Chill Wind to be a Burst 2. He rolls 1d6 plus nothing because it doesn't add his wisdom and because he doesn't have a magic implement. He gets a 2 on the die, the subtracts 2 from Enlarge Spell. So the druid does 0 damage but slides each creature in the burst 1 square.
Basically, there are ways that it could happen.
Saagael
First Post
To all the people who stated situations where damage can be 0:
You're correct. My post was admitting my error in thinking, and explaining how I was wrong, so that people with similar minds might also be enlightened.
Not sure if I should further explain my (false) logic, but I'll do it anyway. The whole reason for my response is that I thought damage had a minimum of 1, so in cases where damage would be 0 or lower(for the reasons multiple people state above) I would up it to 1. Resistance was the only time when I would let damage equal 0, since that seemed to be the common sense to me.
I'll say it again. What I said above is wrong, and merely a clarification for future reference in case someone else thinks the same way. You've convinced me that damage can equal 0. It's why I come to ENworld; to learn things I otherwise would have not known.
You're correct. My post was admitting my error in thinking, and explaining how I was wrong, so that people with similar minds might also be enlightened.
Not sure if I should further explain my (false) logic, but I'll do it anyway. The whole reason for my response is that I thought damage had a minimum of 1, so in cases where damage would be 0 or lower(for the reasons multiple people state above) I would up it to 1. Resistance was the only time when I would let damage equal 0, since that seemed to be the common sense to me.
I'll say it again. What I said above is wrong, and merely a clarification for future reference in case someone else thinks the same way. You've convinced me that damage can equal 0. It's why I come to ENworld; to learn things I otherwise would have not known.
UngeheuerLich
Legend
I think it is more funny that you can push -1 squares with a thunderwave of a wizard that has wisdom 8...
Is it a pull then?^^
Is it a pull then?^^
Oompa
First Post
1 is an instamiss..
Oompa
First Post
He is talking about rolling a 1 with a melee basic attack, not rolling 1 from a damage roll
DracoSuave
First Post
He is talking about rolling a 1 with a melee basic attack, not rolling 1 from a damage roll
In a thread about rolling less than 1 damage, -that- is the context you gathered from his statement?
He is talking about rolling a 1 with a melee basic attack, not rolling 1 from a damage roll
He was listing it as an example of an attack doing 0 damage. He mentioned specifically having 8 strength (a -1 modifier), and rolling a 1. I'm pretty sure he was talking about rolling a 1 on the damage roll of a melee basic attack (which uses strength)...
