Bullgrit
Adventurer
When people here talk about their AD&D1 experiences, the variation in our play shows to have been drastically different. Someone says their experiences were A, and another person says their experiences were Z, and they get into a big argument over whose experiences were right with the game as written or more common among the general player population. It really astonishes me how completely different, even opposite, our experiences can be with the same game.
I don’t see much of this kind of disparate experiences with people talking about D&D3 and D&D4? (Am I just missing the arguments?)
Is this change from extreme-variance in play experiences to more uniform play experiences a result of the edition of the game, or a result of our culture? Has the Internet and vast discussion forums brought people’s play experiences closer to similar, or is there something about the later game rules that did this?
Was this variance in experience with AD&D1 also present in OD&D and BD&D? I don’t see so many arguments about how OD&D and BD&D were played differently by different people and compared to the rules as written. Or is it because we have less discussions (arguments) over OD&D and BD&D compared to AD&D1?
How about AD&D2? No one seems to argue experiences (actual or intended) so much about AD&D2. But surely AD&D2 didn’t give a more uniform experience compared to AD&D1. Is this because AD&D2 seemed to be actually made to have highly varying experiences, what with all the supplements produced in its era?
Bullgrit
I don’t see much of this kind of disparate experiences with people talking about D&D3 and D&D4? (Am I just missing the arguments?)
Is this change from extreme-variance in play experiences to more uniform play experiences a result of the edition of the game, or a result of our culture? Has the Internet and vast discussion forums brought people’s play experiences closer to similar, or is there something about the later game rules that did this?
Was this variance in experience with AD&D1 also present in OD&D and BD&D? I don’t see so many arguments about how OD&D and BD&D were played differently by different people and compared to the rules as written. Or is it because we have less discussions (arguments) over OD&D and BD&D compared to AD&D1?
How about AD&D2? No one seems to argue experiences (actual or intended) so much about AD&D2. But surely AD&D2 didn’t give a more uniform experience compared to AD&D1. Is this because AD&D2 seemed to be actually made to have highly varying experiences, what with all the supplements produced in its era?
Bullgrit