I've been pondering the whole Pippin/Palantir issue. In other words, without the "Voice of Saruman" scene, why does Gandalf take off with Pippin to Gondor? The only thing I can come up with that doesn't jar continuity-wise is that Treebeard meets Gandalf, et al at the edge of the forest or by Helm's Deep, bringing the hobbits with him (instead of their meeting at Isengard). Gandalf realizes that the attack on Minas Tirith is imminent and he cannot wait for Rohan to muster (just like in books) he hops on Shadowfax and -this is where I have trouble- takes Pip with him. Why would he burden Shadowfax with another rider (even just a hobbit) if it were unnecessary? What would necessitate Pippin riding ahead with Gandalf other than the Palantir scene or one that would require as much exposition?
I'm stumped.