herald
First Post
I strongly disagree. Shakespeare's use of words and verse are not that common in that day in age, even if one of his contemporaries did more. And while you can say that regional dialects had become more standard hundreds of years later, I was more or less speaking of the time periods before. However I defy you to say that some one who speaks with a cornish accent, sounds and speaks just like someone who is from some place like Dorset. <Minor Hijack> Regional dialects are very tricky things and sometimes envirionmental situations also play into accents as well as isolation. A few years ago English scientists were stating that the "Cockney" accent was dying out because the coal burning plants were being shut down and residents were not getting nasal infections at the same rate they once were because of it. Odd, but the sinus cavity plays with tonality so much that this sort of thing happens. </Minor Hijack>shilsen said:Not that far ahead of his time in creating words. He had an incredibly large vocabulary, but rarely created his own words. Spenser, for example, who is his contemporary, does a lot more word-smithing. Almost all of the language in Shakespeare's works is what was in existence at the time. The regional dialects post-1066 had become a lot more standardized by Shakespeare's time, i.e. the Renaissance. He's about a century late to be called a medieval writer (later, if you consider the continent and not just England), but somehow his language is what people commonly think of as medieval English.
I with the very broad range that is the Medieval period, most people I know who study this time in history would reject Shakespeare's writing as being of that style. More common would be Geoffrey Chaucer. (just sticking with the English).