I say it is implied.pemerton said:To get the conclusion that your are suggesting (that a weak figher can't wear armour) you would need there to be a rule that the class feature shares the prerequisites of the feat. But this is not a rule, and it is not implied by the rule that the class feature counts as the feat.
Consider the following (made up) rule: "The plate proficiency you gain from the paladin class counts as the Armor Proficiency (Plate) feat [so far I'm copying the words from p 52 using a specific example] ... for the purpose of having to meet the prerequisites for the Armor Proficiency (Plate) feat in order use it. "
Is that an absurd rule? No. The "for the purpose of" limitation is not unheard of in the rules. If there's no such limitation, the default assumption should be that the proficiency "counts as" the feat for all purposes, including having to meet the feat's prerequisites to use it.
Against my better judgement I'll try for an example.
Say your country requires you to have a special driver's license ("prerequisite") to drive a vehicle classified as a "truck". A law is then passed that says that your car "counts as" a truck. I say that you now need that special license to drive your car legally. You insist that since the law didn't spell out that the car counts as a truck for the purpose of driver's licenses, you just need a regular license. I don't think a judge would agree that you were "obviously" or "self-evidently" correct. He might agee that it could be more clear though.
Edit: And if I may push the example a little, if you wrote a letter to a government bureaucrat asking if you needed a special license to drive your car/truck, an answer explaining that you bought it legally and you now own it would be missing the point.
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