D&D 5E Revisiting RAW Darkness Spell

They don't have to specify that normal vision can't see through it because that's the default assumption anyway.
No, it’s not. The default assumption is that a creature without Darkvision can’t see into darkness. But, as you agreed, a creature without Darkvision should be able to see through natural darkness, to see a torch on the other side of it.
 

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Note that the Darkness text predates the errata that made normal Darkness transparent too.
I highly doubt the designers intended natural darkness to be opaque pre-errata. Ergo, it is unlikely that they based the wording of the spell on the idea that natural darkness is opaque.
 

I literally did that n Post #175. Which came before this post.

You pulled that quote out of context. It's clear from the context that @FrogReaver was refuting @BookTenTiger 's use of the text that says creatures with darkvision can't see through the area of the spell to support an argument that all creatures, with or without darkvision, are unable to see out of magical darkness into an illuminated area. Obviously, that text only applies to creatures with darkvision, and pointing that out isn't an argument that "it's easier to see through magical darkness if you don't have darkvision".
 

You pulled that quote out of context. It's clear from the context that @FrogReaver was refuting @BookTenTiger 's use of the text that says creatures with darkvision can't see through the area of the spell to support an argument that all creatures, with or without darkvision, are unable to see out of magical darkness into an illuminated area. Obviously, that text only applies to creatures with darkvision, and pointing that out isn't an argument that "it's easier to see through magical darkness if you don't have darkvision".
Yes, I don't really mind if people are going with the transparent or opaque Darkness interpretation, I just got a little bothered by people implying @FrogReaver was defending the notion that Normal vision was better than Darkvision in that case.
 

I'm going to quote former poster Hemlock here from the other thread because this post is what helped me understand the interpretation under discussion. I had brought up the "can't see through this darkness" objection, and this was his reply:

To me it means that Darkvision does not trump the Darkness spell. "Can't see through the darkness" is a fairly natural way to write that. WotC isn't noted for the clarity of their writing.

Consider the fact that the new wording on heavy obscurement rules in the errata make most obscurement unidirectional. Errata is not for rules changes, it's for ideas the designers had in mind all along but failed to clearly convey. If they've been thinking of obscurement like Fog Cloud as something you can see out of but not into or within, it would be natural to write that "you can't see through Fog Cloud with Darkvision", even though you're clearly intended to see out of it.

And because there exist ways to gain unidirectional heavy obscurement, making Darkness a special case of bidirectional obscurement doesn't really gain you anything from a game balance perspective, since there are other spells that can be exploited just as easily in exactly the same way. And it's more difficult to adjudicate, because you have to calculate angles and line of sight. As a DM I think it's better to just go with the apparent intent and say, "anything within the Darkness radius cannot be seen, modulo truesight/tremorsense/etc."

The difference between Darkness and Invisibility is that Darkness can be used against you (if enemies close to melee range), and Darkness cannot usually be used to be sneaky, since it's a big moving blot of anti-light.
 




I'm going to quote former poster Hemlock here from the other thread because this post is what helped me understand the interpretation under discussion. I had brought up the "can't see through this darkness" objection, and this was his reply:
Ironically while I don’t find this to be a compelling argument that the transparent darkness interpretation is RAW, I do think it makes a pretty good case for it being the simpler ruling to adjudicate.
 

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