If they're actually lying about their belief in being able to "deauthorize" the OGL 1.0(a), that seems to me to be misrepresentation. And if that lie leads to someone signing a contract, I believe that's a tort?
Yes. In English Tort Law it's a Derry v Peek fraudulent misrepresentation. That just means someone who enters a contract as a result of the Misrep can sue for damages, as well as getting Rescission of the contract. With the Misrepresentation Act you can also sue for a wide range of not-actually-fraudulent Misrep these days, unless the Misrep was wholly innocent.
Fraud can also be a criminal offence in some cases, but not all fraudulent misrep is criminal. Misrepresenting the contents of a contractual document to my knowledge is typically not criminal. Misrepresenting the Law is not even Misrep, likely because the Law is inherently uncertain, but it can be Misrep if you create an impression you have grounds to believe something when you don't.
(I am not giving legal advice)
