A few quick questions about extra attacks

[brehobit]

Hi folks,
Two questions:

1. Does an attack granted as an opportunity action count as an opportunity attack for purposes of (say) a fighter's combat superiority? Specifically the ardent has a level 7 at will that grants such an attack. Does it stack with the bonuses the ardent grants to opportunity attacks?
   
2. If you get to take an extra at-will attack against a specific opponent for some reason, if it is an area attack (close burst 1 in the case of the monk I'm thinking about) it can target more than just the one target yes? Specifically I'm looking at the ki focus rain of hammers, but I think the question is pretty generic.

Thanks,
Mark

 

[DracoSuave]

1) No. Unless it is explicitly described as an opportunity attack, it is not. Do be aware, however, many of them actually are.

On top of this, if an ardent uses the power and augments it by 2 points it becomes this:

Close burst 1
Target: Each enemy you can see in burst
Effect: One ally adjacent to you can make a melee basic attack against the target as an opportunity action, on a hit you and the ally can shift as a free action.
Attack: Charisma vs Ac
Hit: 1[W] + Charisma modifier damage, and one ally adjacent to the target can make a melee basic attack against it as an opportunity action.

If a specific ally makes takes the opportunity action granted by the effect against one target, it cannot take that action against any other target, nor can it take the one offered in if you hit.

2) Good question. That's up to the DM, there's no official rule on that.

 

[Joshua Randall]

Rain of Hammers doesn't specify a single target. It says

Power (Daily): Minor Action. Make an at-will attack against an enemy that you already hit with an attack during this turn.

As long as the enemy is included in the attack, and the attack is an at-will, you're fine.

 

[DracoSuave]

Rain of Hammers doesn't specify a single target. It says

As long as the enemy is included in the attack, and the attack is an at-will, you're fine.

Apparently 'an enemy' is not a singular target?

Does the word 'an' mean something different in your language than what it does where I live? Cause it looks like the singular to me.

 

[Joshua Randall]

There's no need to be snippy.

"A single target" has a specific meaning in D&D.

"Attack an enemy" DNE "Attack a single target".

When a wizard drops scorching burst on 1 orc and 5 goblins, that fulfills "attack an enemy" assuming the orc is "an enemy".

 

[Infiniti2000]

When a wizard drops scorching burst on 1 orc and 5 goblins, that fulfills "attack an enemy" assuming the orc is "an enemy".

Agreed. This same concept is applied to things like marks and divine challenge. That is, if you make an area attack that includes the fighter/paladin/etc. then you're not affected by the mark/DC.

 

[Infiniti2000]

1) No. Unless it is explicitly described as an opportunity attack, it is not.

I'm not sure I agree. In this case it uses the precise definition of opportunity attack. Your reasoning here is that the definition doesn't align with the phrase?