kreynolds
First Post
...hopefully for the last time. 
I know this topic has been covered to the extent that it's like beating a dead horse with stick, buy hey. It's been goin' on for a while in the House Rules thread (been pretty entertaining for me too
) So, here's the question...
If a PC Wizard creates a 2,000gp magic item, does that item count against his wealth at the full market price (2,000gp) or at the creation cost of the item (1,000gp)? Assume the character has already been created, so the character is not using the rules in the DMG regarding creating characters above 1st level.
This is strictly a question regarding the rules or interpretation of the rules, so please, no house rules. I do realize however, that an interpretation of a rule could also be construed as a house rule or rule 0, but you get the idea.
I'll put up a poll to make this easier too, but please post your comments as to why you believe it works the way you do.
Thanks.
EDIT: Case solved. Thanks everybody! Send a howdy to Sean K. Reynolds if ya' get a chance.

I know this topic has been covered to the extent that it's like beating a dead horse with stick, buy hey. It's been goin' on for a while in the House Rules thread (been pretty entertaining for me too

If a PC Wizard creates a 2,000gp magic item, does that item count against his wealth at the full market price (2,000gp) or at the creation cost of the item (1,000gp)? Assume the character has already been created, so the character is not using the rules in the DMG regarding creating characters above 1st level.
This is strictly a question regarding the rules or interpretation of the rules, so please, no house rules. I do realize however, that an interpretation of a rule could also be construed as a house rule or rule 0, but you get the idea.
I'll put up a poll to make this easier too, but please post your comments as to why you believe it works the way you do.
Thanks.
EDIT: Case solved. Thanks everybody! Send a howdy to Sean K. Reynolds if ya' get a chance.

Last edited: