Does unarmed strike qualify for the Improved Natural Attack feat?

Alzrius said:
I was hoping for something a little more specific, especially since this is a case of "If A to C, then why not B to C, if B equates A?".

If your parents are US citizens, then you are a US citizen, but there are many people who are US citizens who's parents are not.

If you are a US citizen, then you may vote in US presidential elections (ignoring exceptions for right now).

Now, by your logic, if you are a US citizen, then your parents can vote. That doesn't happen to be true. It is their own citizenship that qualifies them to vote, not some potential results of said citizenship.

IUS gives you letal damage and removes the AoO.

A slam attack (or other natural attack) does lethal damage and does not provoke.

IUS qualifies you for some feats.

By your logic, a natural attack should qualify also. This is not the case. It's *having* the particular IUS ability that qualifies you for the feat, NOT the effects you get from that feat. If you happen to get those effects from somewhere else, you still don't have the feat.
 

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apesamongus said:
If your parents are US citizens, then you are a US citizen, but there are many people who are US citizens who's parents are not.

If you are a US citizen, then you may vote in US presidential elections (ignoring exceptions for right now).

Now, by your logic, if you are a US citizen, then your parents can vote. That doesn't happen to be true. It is their own citizenship that qualifies them to vote, not some potential results of said citizenship.

Actually, that's not my logic at all, since this entire analogy has nothing to do with what I'm asking, being about something completely different altogether.

IUS gives you letal damage and removes the AoO.

A slam attack (or other natural attack) does lethal damage and does not provoke.

IUS qualifies you for some feats.

By your logic, a natural attack should qualify also. This is not the case. It's *having* the particular IUS ability that qualifies you for the feat, NOT the effects you get from that feat. If you happen to get those effects from somewhere else, you still don't have the feat.

I disagree. Having the exact same effect of a feat also qualifies you for feats (and other things) that require that feat as a prereq.
 

Alzrius said:
I disagree. Having the exact same effect of a feat also qualifies you for feats (and other things) that require that feat as a prereq.

Sure.

But if a troll punches or kicks someone, he deals non-lethal damage and provokes an AoO, since his unarmed strikes are not treated as armed. The fact that he could choose to claw someone, using a natural weapon that deals lethal damage and doesn't provoke an AoO, doesn't make any difference to his unarmed strike.

Therefore, his natural weapon doesn't grant the exact same effect of the IUS feat. His claws don't remove the AoO provoked by his unarmed strike, which is the effect of the feat.

-Hyp.
 

Alzrius said:
Why not? The IUS feat just makes your unarmed attacks count as being armed, and deal lethal damage. How is that different from what most monsters already have with their natural attacks?

The short answer is that effectively the same in most cases does not equal exactly the same in all cases.

The other side of the coin of your logical proposition is that monsters with natural attacks should have access to feats with IUS as a prerequisite. They are "the same", right? But that is clearly not within the letter or spirit of the RAW.

I disagree. Having the exact same effect of a feat also qualifies you for feats (and other things) that require that feat as a prereq.

That is not generally true. There are multiple ways to gain a Dodge bonus. But just because I have a Dodge bonus does not allow me to pick up the Mobility feat without first having the Dodge feat. In fact, there are many Dodge bonuses that are outright superior to the pitiful +1 to one opponent. But they all are not the Dodge feat when it comes to Mobility/Spring Attack.
 
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Alzrius said:
Actually, that's not my logic at all, since this entire analogy has nothing to do with what I'm asking, being about something completely different altogether.

That's how analogies work. If there about the same thing, then they are no longer analogies.

I disagree. Having the exact same effect of a feat also qualifies you for feats (and other things) that require that feat as a prereq.

What you believe has no bearing on what is logically valid.

There is a certain pattern that sometimes (often) follows what you are saying, but there is no general rule stated anywhere, so unless it is explicitly stated to work in a specific case, then - by the rules- it doesn't work.
 

Top of p.303 ". . .typically used only by monsters."

As a GM I would not allow this. Unless of course the monk in question also has the ability to alter self (via tattoo or spell) or some other form of poly.

Now, if one were a tat monk and was using the alter self, then they would in effect become a "monster" and it makes much more sense.

Just my $0.02

-A
 

duhtroll1 said:
Top of p.303 ". . .typically used only by monsters."

As a GM I would not allow this. Unless of course the monk in question also has the ability to alter self (via tattoo or spell) or some other form of poly.

Now, if one were a tat monk and was using the alter self, then they would in effect become a "monster" and it makes much more sense.

Just my $0.02

-A

Just because something is TYPICALLY only used by monsters doesn't mean it can't be used by non-monsters who qualify for it, and before Egres jumps down my throat and says (paraphrased) "Well, they don't qualify for it," I believe they do, following Hong's line of logic, just like I did in the last thread about this topic. There's really no point in responding to your question; you already know the answer, but I'll respond anyway for the sake of those who might not have already heard it - we believe the monk's unarmed attacks meet the definition of 'natural weapons' for the purpose of the feat, and we've laid out for you, in a number of posts, why we believe this. You don't think the same way, and that's fine - I'm tired of arguing with you about it. I think we've finally reached a point where we can all pick up our debating toys for this topic and go home, because you're not going to change my mind about it, and I suspect you've made up your mind about it as well.


Monsters TYPICALLY use it because they usually more easily qualify for the feats in that section by virtue of their abilities - it's a theme-oriented list of feats that monster will usually get to quicker than PCs will. However, it's in the MM, it's core, so there's no reason why a player shouldn't be able to take the feat if they meet the pre-requisites for it.


Starglim said:
Also, Improved Natural Attack is listed in the Monster Feats, not the General Feats, so arguably it is not intended to be available to a PC race regardless of its prerequisites.


It has a GENERAL tag next to its name, last time I looked. It's still in the core three - it's core material. Its placement is due to theme, IMO, as I stated above, just not so concisely. If this was a MONSTER feat, then I'd concede defeat immediately unless my monk was a monster-monk.

Ridley's Cohort said:
That is not generally true. There are multiple ways to gain a Dodge bonus. But just because I have a Dodge bonus does not allow me to pick up the Mobility feat without first having the Dodge feat. In fact, there are many Dodge bonuses that are outright superior to the pitiful +1 to one opponent. But they all are not the Dodge feat when it comes to Mobility/Spring Attack.

But this is also mitigated by the fact that Mobility lists Dodge by name as a pre-requisite. If the wording of the feat stated that he needed a dodge bonus to utilize its effects without naming Dodge as a specific pre-requisite, then he'd golden to take and use it without Dodge.

apesamongus said:
There is a certain pattern that sometimes (often) follows what you are saying, but there is no general rule stated anywhere, so unless it is explicitly stated to work in a specific case, then - by the rules- it doesn't work.

Actually, there is a rule/concept that controls just this sort of thing, IMO - virtual feats. By this logic your statements are indeed correct; since the slam attack doesn't state anything about being treated as a virtual IUS feat, he doesn't qualify for feats that specifically name IUS as a pre-requisite. If the text of the feat states it needs certain scenarios to be present that imitate IUS, but don't specifically name IUS as a pre-requisite, then he can take the feat and use it as long as he meets the stated situational modifiers. Off the top of my head, however, I can't think of any feats like that... :D
 

If it isnt unbalancing, (and clearly it is not), I'd either allow it, or create a feat based on the effect. Lets see: We'll call it "Potent Unarmed Strikes" Prereq: IUS, BAB +4. Benefit: Increase the damage die of the character by 1 step. Damage die increases work as follows (etc pasted from MM 3.5 pg 304).

Now, clearly this isnt unbalancing, people on here complain monks suck often enough. Next, the feat is clearly within the spirit of the rules, and makes a fine house rule. It is no better or worse than the monster feat, and has prereq's that are clear and concise. Is there any reason this wont work for everyone?
 

Seeten said:
If it isnt unbalancing, (and clearly it is not), I'd either allow it, or create a feat based on the effect. Lets see: We'll call it "Potent Unarmed Strikes" Prereq: IUS, BAB +4. Benefit: Increase the damage die of the character by 1 step. Damage die increases work as follows (etc pasted from MM 3.5 pg 304).

Now, clearly this isnt unbalancing, people on here complain monks suck often enough. Next, the feat is clearly within the spirit of the rules, and makes a fine house rule. It is no better or worse than the monster feat, and has prereq's that are clear and concise. Is there any reason this wont work for everyone?

And you just wrote exactly what I wanted to say.

Really people, are your monks so overpowered in your games and campaign-crushing that you must make such a sustained effort to try to convince the DMing masses that the feat cannot be taken ?

It is quite clear that the rules can be interpreted on both ways of the fence. There's no hard evidence for or against it. Therefore, any decision you take is purely influenced by your desires as a game master. Either you (A) give your monk players a break and let them have a fair shot to be a valuable part of the adventuring party, or (B) you don't, and you end up with the monk class being seldom taken at all in your campaign.

I would not like to play under DM (B), for such a trend in rules decision can only end up in my gaming pleasure being diminished.

I am quite content to have a DM forbid me from doing something in the rules (I would accept that a DM, for example, forbids my sorceror from using any of the Orb spells from CA. The sorceror class isn't underpowered, and it can be debated that the Orb spells are overpowered), but only if he does so in pursuing a balanced and enjoyable campaign. The monk has been identified again and again by many as a sub-par class, and forbiding him to take that feat is just... :):):):):):):).

;)
 

But you're going to have to keep buying new gloves every time you take the feat... and get your sleeves altered.... because of your BIG MAN HANDS. ;)


Mike
 

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