I don't really agree with this ruling by the DM, but I just thought I would throw this out there if anyone wants to discuss it.
The Setup:
My latest group, like every group I have ever played with or met, used the idea that if a person is Glitterduested then reapplying Invisibility negated it. It could be something derived from 1e or just simply no-one ever bothered to argue it differently (I never did!) since it would be like covering an invisible object in flour and re-invising makes it disappear. And, no, it's not because I told them it worked that way. A lot of different people, new to me at the time, did it the same way without me saying a word.
However, thanks to Iron Wolf (I believe), I have seen the error of my misbegotten youth. Still, the DM disagrees.
The Ruling:
"If a person is Glitterdusted and goes invisible then, yes, you can still see him." So far, so good.
HOWEVER ...
"Glitterdust is essentially a cloud of gold flecks (like tin-foil confetti) that sticks to everything. By itself, it gives off no light, so you have to have a light source to cause it to sparkle."
"But, wait," I say, "wouldn't that mean Glitterdust has no affect in darkness?"
"Yes. Unless the watcher has Darkvision"
"But, it says 'sparkles until it fades' (or somesuch). Doesn't that imply it's its own light source."
"No," says a player (a RL metallurgist), "it's like a gold or silver ring. Eventually the luster wears off and it dulls. When the spell ends, the luster wears off - fades."
Alright, I don't buy it but the DM's word is final (now in my worlds, things will be done differently). What do y'all think?
The Setup:
My latest group, like every group I have ever played with or met, used the idea that if a person is Glitterduested then reapplying Invisibility negated it. It could be something derived from 1e or just simply no-one ever bothered to argue it differently (I never did!) since it would be like covering an invisible object in flour and re-invising makes it disappear. And, no, it's not because I told them it worked that way. A lot of different people, new to me at the time, did it the same way without me saying a word.
However, thanks to Iron Wolf (I believe), I have seen the error of my misbegotten youth. Still, the DM disagrees.
The Ruling:
"If a person is Glitterdusted and goes invisible then, yes, you can still see him." So far, so good.
HOWEVER ...
"Glitterdust is essentially a cloud of gold flecks (like tin-foil confetti) that sticks to everything. By itself, it gives off no light, so you have to have a light source to cause it to sparkle."

"But, wait," I say, "wouldn't that mean Glitterdust has no affect in darkness?"
"Yes. Unless the watcher has Darkvision"

"But, it says 'sparkles until it fades' (or somesuch). Doesn't that imply it's its own light source."
"No," says a player (a RL metallurgist), "it's like a gold or silver ring. Eventually the luster wears off and it dulls. When the spell ends, the luster wears off - fades."
Alright, I don't buy it but the DM's word is final (now in my worlds, things will be done differently). What do y'all think?