I conjecture that there is some kind of consistent rules posture that you take which is very different from what I (and some others) take. I have not been able to put it into words exactly. It may be that I am systematically misinterpreting the rules, and also what you are saying about the rules. I don't think so, but I can't account for your rules decisions and so I have to suspend judgement.
I (and others) have stated it quite succinctly: The PHB contains
explicit, RAW sections that say that unarmed strikes are natrual weapons. Subsequent publications do so as well. There is
no RAW section in the PHB that contradicts that- I personaly went through the PHB glossary and combat sections to point that out. (Post #607.)
The best that can be said, PHB RAW is that certain sections explicitly refer to US as NA and other sections reveal
inconsistencies- but no true contradictions.
I also pointed out that the language in the spells in the PHB
changed from 3Ed to 3.5Ed into the more explicit language (one spell ADDED the language about US being NA) to illustrate that the 3.5Ed-itors clearly thought of US being NA at least part of the time during the revision. (Post #643)
Legildur
Sometimes related legislation (non-core material) has an apparent impact on the core legislation - primary legislation trumps ancilliary legislation, just as core rules trump non-core where there is a conflict.
Even that isn't 100% the case: Often, in legislation as in RPG rules, subseqent (non-core) text is meant to supplant the original text.
Example: The Texas State Constitution has a section dealing with marital property rights. It has been changed many times- one section has been altered about 9 times in particular. The Texas Constitution wasn't re-issued in a new (Nth Edition) core form- we lawyers merely need to know where the new section is located OR must be able to trace it through the revisions.
So if Andy Collins says in an after dinner speach that a D&D rules is X, that is official errata? I'll stick to the actual errata, thankyou very much!
Not unless it gets adopted by WOTC. Otherwise, its just dicta- aka talk - and thus has no real force.
I wonder if they would still be the Yes side if the FAQ had said that monks could not take INA?
That would depend on what the FAQ actually said.
If it just said NO without a decent explanation, then I'd still be supporting Monks taking INA, because there are RAW sections that support that position. Example- WOTC's errata on M:TG occasionally made distinctions between IDENTICAL language on different cards because the cards, as written, led to potential game-breaking combinations. While it made no LINGUISTIC sense, it made sense for reasons of supporting their tournament environment. (IMHO, the better decision would have been to ban the offending cards from tournament play and re-issue the card with a different name and corrected text in the next release- like they had done with other cards.)
IF, on the other hand, the FAQ stated that the language in the PHB was an editing error- language that should have been excised when the PHB went to print, then I would have to accept that Monks don't get to take INA.