Bass Puppet said:
ok, I went and saw it for the 2nd time yesterday. I absolutely loved it better the 2nd time. The acting was better than the first two installments, the special effecst were tighter (especially for legolas), the score rounded out nicely with all three movie scores. A couple of things I didn't understand and maybe some of you intelligent people can clearify for me. Now understand, I haven't read the books in 24 years, and I've been waiting to see all three movies before I re-read them again and some of these questions might just be movie related so be gentle with me. (looks at previous posts again).
1. Why exactly do the hobbits (in particular Bilbo and Frodo) have a resistance towards the ring? Weren't Deagol and Smeagol Hobbits too? If so, why didn't the ring have the same effect? If it betrayed Isiludul and abandoned Gollum, why didn't it abandon Bilbo or Frodo? Why did it wait till Frodo was at Mt Doom to finally turn him?
This is a trickier question than it might first seem. I can give you my resaoning based upon personal perception after having seen the movies and read the books many times (only twice for ROTK film though

). As far as Bilbo is concerned, Sauron wasn't calling to the Ring for most of the time that Bilbo had it. Nor was he -at that point- aware of hobbits or the Shire. When Frodo got the Ring, things were already in motion: Gollum's capture in Mordor, Sauron gathering his strength, etc.
Another thing to keep in mind is that Frodo & Bilbo were essentially "good" people. They not only were harder to corrupt because of their decent natures, but they also weren't ambitous or puissant the way a Gandalf or Boromir might be. They never
tried to do anything particularly powerful with Ring, so its corrupting influence had a harder time taking hold. Smeagol was a sneaky so-and-so before he ever got the Ring, so he was more easily corrupted. In the books, Deagol really didn't put up much of a fight, Smeagol just killed him and took the Ring. In the end, though, the Ring finally managed to beat down Frodo's resistance and bend him to its will.
2. Why didn't Arwen and Elrond talk in Elvish? Even though it's a small gripe, it just bugs me that they didn't use it enough, I mean, I would have liked to see the orcs speaking orc (goblins speaking goblins, etc.) instead of a bad english dialect with a lisp. I guess, it just would have been more realistic too speak to each other in their natural tongue, but I don't remember english being the universal language amonst all creatures on Middle Earth. To man, but that's all I remember.
There is mention that many of the orcs are from different tribes/regions and therefore speak Westron (Common) to one another when mixed together. As far as the elves, I agree that them speaking "human" to each other was slightly silly, but perhaps PJ didn't want certain scenes' poignancy to be diluted by the audience having to reading subtitles. Also, Elvish is not a "complete" languages, iirc. The limits of grammar and vocabulary might have limited dialogue options. I'm no expert on Sindarin/Quenya, though.
3. Why is Sarumans Plantir at the base of Isengard? I know, this part was cut from the movie and it will be in EE, but from what they left us was Galdalf telling Treabeard that Saruman is no longer a threat (in the background you can see several Ent's beating on the base of Isengard). I would have thought that they would have done a better job at explaining this since they cut out a scene that was intended for TTT.
In the books (and I assume the EE) Gandalf parleys with Saruman in an attempt to bring him back to the good side and help them v. Sauron. Wormtongue throws the palantir out the window (not realizing what it is) at Gandalf. In the theatre, I think what we see is the begnning and very end of that sequence. Minus the conversation and the throw.