Mod Note:I am done here, nothing will convince you, so keep pretending that you understand this.
Please, don’t end posts with parting shots at other ENWorlders. That’s disruptive and makes things persoral. That makes work for the moderation staff.

Mod Note:I am done here, nothing will convince you, so keep pretending that you understand this.

Well, it made sense to me and I'm not a lawyer. As far as I'm aware. Should I be worried?He's technically correct, it's just he's writing as a lawyer so it looks nonsensical to a layman.

It makes sense to me also.Well, it made sense to me and I'm not a lawyer. As far as I'm aware. Should I be worried?
The OGL reads like a contract to me. It has provisions dealing with offer, acceptance and consideration, which are basic concepts in the common law of contract.A copyright license is not a contract.
Everyone knows this. But making an offer to enter into a licence is not the same as entering into a licence. I could, today, declare that I licence the Pemerton SRD under the OGL 1.0 to any and all takers. And then, tomorrow, I could withdraw that offer. Everyone who took up my offer in the intervening period would have rights under the licence. But once I withdrew the offer, no new licences could be created directly with me. Of course, under the terms of the OGL 1.0 sub-licences could be created with my licensors.That they explicitly state that the license is perpetual.
Because it's still a leading case about offer and acceptance in the context of offers made to all the world. When @Umbran and others say there is no contract with WotC because (eg) there is no exchange of documents between the parties, they demonstrate their lack of familiarity with Carlill and similar cases.Not sure why you think Carlill is in point
Under the OGL, everyone who has entered into the licence with WotC has permission, which cannot be revoked, to distribute WotC's SRD as OGC. So you don't need to "get in before the lock". But it seems to me that it would affect who you have to cite in your section 15 copyright declaration.Which means, in short, get in before the lock if that's the route they choose to take.
This is my concern: that they will not accept any new licence agreements under the existing system after they release the new system.
That's a workaround, I guess, though are you then limited to using only the distributing party's material (as you're using their licence, not yours)?
In my view, nothing. As per my paragraph just above, I don't think this affects stuff in the 5e SRD.what's stopping WotC from imposing a time limit after which new licencees must use OGL 1.1?
That's a cruel barb!He's technically correct, it's just he's writing as a lawyer so it looks nonsensical to a layman.
I don't think so!Well, it made sense to me and I'm not a lawyer. As far as I'm aware. Should I be worried?
EDIT: I just saw S'mon's post #229. Which pours cold water on the preceding paragraph. That leaves me puzzled as to how/why Paizo was citing only the 3.0 SRD in its copyright declarations for works it was publishing which included 3.5 SRD material (eg the polar ray spell). I doubt that Paizo was simply careless.
But if there is new material in the revised SRD, it may not be usable pursuant to the terms of the OGL v 1.0/1.0a. I say "may" because there are complexities. @S'mon has said that perhaps section 9 of the OGL v 1.0/1.0a might govern a licence to use the revised SRD - and although I can't myself see what the legal mechanism is whereby that would happen, I trust S'mon's instincts on this because he's an expert in the field.
OK, that's surprising but interesting.I think it's highly likely they were simply careless.
You don't think they would have run it by lawyers before PR/communications made the announcement?I also think WoTC very likely didn't consider the full implications of the wording of the OGL 1.0 before their recent announcement re the OGL 1.1. I suspect we've spent far more time on it in these threads than they did when they made the announcement.
I would characterise this as a type of incorporation by reference, but more at the implied than the express end of things. I should add that the terminology I'm using here is my own, and is based more on public law theorising than private law theorising. (Some people think that the underlying principles of interpretation are the same in both contexts. But I don't think I agree with them. Though I'm not 100% sure.)If they choose to call it OGL 1.1 they appear (arguably) to be choosing to bind themselves to the terms of the OGL 1.0.
