ForceUser
Explorer
Recently I pondered taking the Improved Unarmed Strike feat with my rogue. The particular campaign world is ruled by a lawful evil empire that has outlawed most weapons, and it occured to me that being the weapon could be more useful in such a setting than trying to smuggle a weapon past imperial officials day in and day out. So I read up on the Improved Unarmed Strike feat and Unarmed Attacks in the combat section of the PHB, and there I discovered what could be a terrible omission. At least, I hope it was an omission, because the alternative means that my friends and I have been doing unarmed strikes wrong since 3E came out.
Okay, it's like this: nowhere in the PHB does it say that [improved unarmed strikes] do real damage like a normal weapon. In the Unarmed Attacks section of the combat chapter, it specfically notes that:
Now, okay, you're thinking that this only applies to untrained unarmed strikes, right? That somewhere else in the book it mentions that improved unarmed strikes deal real damage. The logical places to look then would be the Improved Unarmed Strike feat and the Unarmed Strike section of the Monk class description. Somewhere, it must say that improved unarmed strikes do normal damage without the -4 to attack, right?
Right?
Wrong. Nowhere in any relevant section of the PHB that I can find does it say that Improved Unarmed Strike defaults to normal damage. Instead, the feat simply states you don't incur attacks of opportunity when using it, and the Monk Unarmed Strike writeup just says
So this leads me to conclude some scary things for the Monk class. One, Improved Unarmed Strike deals subdual damage unless you declare an attack at a -4 penalty. Two, this throws the usefulness of monk weapons into a whole new light. Three, I don't have Adobe Acrobat on my work computer, so I'm led to wonder if this has been errated in the D&D FAQ. Four, who the heck will ever want to play a Monk if his most effective attack form deals subdual damage?
Did I read this wrong? Have I missed something? Please tell me I've missed something.
Okay, it's like this: nowhere in the PHB does it say that [improved unarmed strikes] do real damage like a normal weapon. In the Unarmed Attacks section of the combat chapter, it specfically notes that:
"You can specify that your unarmed strike will deal normal damage before you make your attack roll, but you suffer a -4 penalty on your attack roll because you have to strike a particularly vulnerable spot to deal normal damage."
Now, okay, you're thinking that this only applies to untrained unarmed strikes, right? That somewhere else in the book it mentions that improved unarmed strikes deal real damage. The logical places to look then would be the Improved Unarmed Strike feat and the Unarmed Strike section of the Monk class description. Somewhere, it must say that improved unarmed strikes do normal damage without the -4 to attack, right?
Right?
Wrong. Nowhere in any relevant section of the PHB that I can find does it say that Improved Unarmed Strike defaults to normal damage. Instead, the feat simply states you don't incur attacks of opportunity when using it, and the Monk Unarmed Strike writeup just says
"...They deal more damage than normal, as shown on Table 3-10: The Monk. A monk fighting unarmed gains the benefits of the Improved Unarmed Strike feat..."
So this leads me to conclude some scary things for the Monk class. One, Improved Unarmed Strike deals subdual damage unless you declare an attack at a -4 penalty. Two, this throws the usefulness of monk weapons into a whole new light. Three, I don't have Adobe Acrobat on my work computer, so I'm led to wonder if this has been errated in the D&D FAQ. Four, who the heck will ever want to play a Monk if his most effective attack form deals subdual damage?
Did I read this wrong? Have I missed something? Please tell me I've missed something.


