D&D 5E Vorpal weapon

Draegn

Explorer
A question for you lovely experts: if a player wielding a vorpal weapon declares he is using subduing damage would that mean the target is still dead with a broken neck instead of decapitation?
 

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Guest 6801328

Guest
A question for you lovely experts: if a player wielding a vorpal weapon declares he is using subduing damage would that mean the target is still dead with a broken neck instead of decapitation?

I think if you attempt to do non-lethal damage with a Vorpal sword and you get a natural 20 it simply counts as an "oops" moment.

Next time let somebody else take the prisoner for interrogation.
 

iserith

Magic Wordsmith
I think [MENTION=47770]immortal[/MENTION]Sun is correct. I would also give some consideration to the vorpal weapon-wielding villain being disarmed by a battle master or via the Disarm action in the DMG (p. 271, if that is in play).

A set of manacles attaching the sword to the villain's gauntlet might be a fun twist (and flavorful to describe), and could lead to some interesting teamwork if the PCs try to divest the villain from its deadly weapon.
 

Mort

Legend
Supporter
A question for you lovely experts: if a player wielding a vorpal weapon declares he is using subduing damage would that mean the target is still dead with a broken neck instead of decapitation?
The damage can be subdual but if a 20 is rolled then the target's head is cut off regardless (and he's very non subdually dead).

Edit: beaten to the punch, but yes - quite dead.
 

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