Infiniti2000
First Post
I'm looking for opinions, fact, and/or past links on the subject of "willing" recipients to spells. I'm not particularly interested in a discussion on (harmless) spells unless you think it's relevant. Basically, my sorcerer uses benign transposition and the DM was wondering how would my party member know to declare herself willing? Could an invisible enemy wizard be near and use benign transposition and then, sans metagaming, would the party member be willing? Is it reasonable to assume, for example, that allies are always willing? What about summoned monsters?
Basically, how do you (or would you) adjudicate this in a game? Since I don't think there are any relevant rules besides the following and I think there's little RAW basis for any standpoint, I'm also quite interested in opinions. So, please no bickering about others' opinions on this.

Basically, how do you (or would you) adjudicate this in a game? Since I don't think there are any relevant rules besides the following and I think there's little RAW basis for any standpoint, I'm also quite interested in opinions. So, please no bickering about others' opinions on this.

Thanks!SRD said:Some spells restrict you to willing targets only. Declaring yourself as a willing target is something that can be done at any time (even if you’re flat-footed or it isn’t your turn). Unconscious creatures are automatically considered willing, but a character who is conscious but immobile or helpless (such as one who is bound, cowering, grappling, paralyzed, pinned, or stunned) is not automatically willing.
