LotusBlossom
First Post
Just checking to see if this is correct, because it seems a little strange to me.
In 4e, take a wizard and fighter using the same melee weapon (staff, dagger, etc) in which both are proficient, and happen to have the same strength (i.e. the fighter didn't really go out to max his STR and the wizard wanted to be kind-of tough and upped his STR higher than a normal wizard). Now, if both were to attack an opponent with a standard melee attack (no feats), then is it true that they would both have the same chance to-hit? Even when they are level 10, 20, 30 (assuming they upped their strength equally over the levels)?
If true, then it seems the fighter is only a good fighter because of his feats and such. Beyond those extras, he not really much better at fighting than any other class even though he's supposed to have been trained and been working on fighting all his adventuring career, while the wizard may have never even touched a melee weapon before the above combat.
I've been looking over several different RPG systems the past few days, and just happened to notice this (if I'm correct, I've never played 4e but I have the core books). This certainly doesn't happen in most other systems.
In 4e, take a wizard and fighter using the same melee weapon (staff, dagger, etc) in which both are proficient, and happen to have the same strength (i.e. the fighter didn't really go out to max his STR and the wizard wanted to be kind-of tough and upped his STR higher than a normal wizard). Now, if both were to attack an opponent with a standard melee attack (no feats), then is it true that they would both have the same chance to-hit? Even when they are level 10, 20, 30 (assuming they upped their strength equally over the levels)?
If true, then it seems the fighter is only a good fighter because of his feats and such. Beyond those extras, he not really much better at fighting than any other class even though he's supposed to have been trained and been working on fighting all his adventuring career, while the wizard may have never even touched a melee weapon before the above combat.
I've been looking over several different RPG systems the past few days, and just happened to notice this (if I'm correct, I've never played 4e but I have the core books). This certainly doesn't happen in most other systems.
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