I see the problem we're having. We're essentially agreeing. Your web site shows this rather well.
Any random child has a 50-50 chance of being either gender.
I am assuming that the second child in any sequence will be a randomly selected child, and you are assuming that the child's sex will be predetermined.
So I'm saying that if a woman has two babies, each is equally likely to be a boy or a girl.
You're saying that in the population of women who have had 2 babies, those who have at least 1 boy are more likely to have 2 boys than to have a boy and a girl.
Now I understand what you were getting at - I remember this aspect of the sex-puzzles from math class.
For example, if you have a family of 3 children, all boys, the odds of the next child being a boy/girl are 50-50, but among existing families with 4 children, you're more likely to have 3 of one gender and 1 of the other.