Feint and Trip?

[Egres]

Hi.

One of my players and I were debating about this problem: what do you think would happen if a cha with the Imp.Trip feat makes a succesful Feint, as a move action thanks to Imp.Feint, and then Trips his opponent?

a) The opponent loses his Dex bonus to AC against the Trip touch attack, but not against the following attack, because the Feint has been wasted on the Trip attempt.

b) The opponent loses his Dex bonus to AC against the Trip touch attack and against the following attack, cause the Imp.Trip feat states: If you trip an opponent in melee combat, you immediately get a melee attack against that opponent as if you hadn’t used your attack for the trip attempt.


Thank you in advance.

 

[Mekabar]

In my opinion it's quite clearly a). The fact that you get a bonus attack if you succeed in the tripping attempt does not mean that you still get any previously used up bonuses. Same would go for a true strike used for tripping.

 

[Egres]

In my opinion it's quite clearly a). The fact that you get a bonus attack if you succeed in the tripping attempt does not mean that you still get any previously used up bonuses. Same would go for a true strike used for tripping.

That' s my opinion too.

But I would be glad to obtain some feedback.

 

[shilsen]

That' s my opinion too.

But I would be glad to obtain some feedback.

Same opinion here. When the Improved Trip feat says "as if you hadn’t used your attack for the trip attempt", I take that as referring simply to not having used up one's attack.

 

[Loghar]

The answer is in the official FAQ.

DEX bonus is only denied for the next attack. That means the touch attack, not the follow up.

 

[Egres]

The answer is in the official FAQ.

DEX bonus is only denied for the next attack. That means the touch attack, not the follow up.

"It takes little talent to see what lies under one's nose, a good deal to know in what direction to point that organ."

Wystan Hugh Auden



Edit:Shilsen, your link is crushed.