Vegepygmy
First Post
I recently came across this argument on another messageboard. I know it's wrong, but I'm not a skilled enough grammarian to succinctly articulate why, and I don't want to spend the hours it would take for me to explain it "the long way." Would anyone who paid closer attention in their 8th-grade English class than I did care to take a stab at doing so (or alternately, just decimate it with your own Rules Fu)?
Here it is:
[2] Rangers have all of the same spellcasting restrictions as a cleric.
[3] Rangers therefore cannot cast spells of an opposite alignment.
[4] A multiclass sorcerer/ranger has all of the casting restrictions of his ranger class.
[5] A multiclass sorcerer/ranger therefore cannot cast sorcerer spells of an opposite alignment.
Once again, I know this is wrong. What I want to know is: assuming you were so inclined, how would you explain that fact to the person advancing this argument?
Here it is:
PHB said:Most of these descriptors have no game effect by themselves, but they govern how the spell interacts with other spells, with special abilities, with unusual creatures, with alignment, and so on.
PHB said:A cleric can’t cast spells of an alignment opposed to his own or his deity’s (if he has one). For example, a good cleric (or a neutral cleric of a good deity) cannot cast evil spells.
PHB said:A ranger prepares and casts spells the way a cleric does, though he cannot lose a prepared spell to cast a cure spell in its place.
[1] Clerics cannot cast spells of an opposite alignment.PHB said:A multiclass character gets all the class features of all his or her classes but must also suffer the consequences of the special restrictions of all his or her classes.
[2] Rangers have all of the same spellcasting restrictions as a cleric.
[3] Rangers therefore cannot cast spells of an opposite alignment.
[4] A multiclass sorcerer/ranger has all of the casting restrictions of his ranger class.
[5] A multiclass sorcerer/ranger therefore cannot cast sorcerer spells of an opposite alignment.
Once again, I know this is wrong. What I want to know is: assuming you were so inclined, how would you explain that fact to the person advancing this argument?