Opportunity Attacks without a melee weapon in hand?

Venator

First Post
Can an "unarmed" Kolbold take an OA if someone moves through a threatened square? How about moving into his square (by accident)?

I've seen comments about "kicking" people and all that when a PC or Creature has a ranged weapon...

Where is the ruling for this?

Thanks.
 

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ValhallaGH said:
Actually, an improvised weapon is 1d4. Or 1d8 if it's a two-handed improvised weapon. Unarmed attacks are also 1d4. No more d3's in D&D.

Hmm, does that mean if I got disarmed somehow, I could use a "two handed hammer strike" (aka bad wrestling move) as a 1d8 improvised weapon?
 

krakenstar said:
Hmm, does that mean if I got disarmed somehow, I could use a "two handed hammer strike" (aka bad wrestling move) as a 1d8 improvised weapon?

No, unarmed strike is a 1d4 improvised weapon regardless of which, or how many, appendages you use. You can use unarmed strike with one hand, both hands, a kick, or a body slam, it makes no difference.
 


I don't see why not. The ranger's losing out on a potential +2 or +3 proficiency bonus to hit on the secondary weapon she could have been using, if he is doing more than the "get +1 DA" that is granted by a TWF feat. But sometimes beggars can't be choosers.
 


My house rule is that you only threaten areas with weapons that you are proficient with.

This quickly solved a lot of potential problems with two weapon feats and powers.
 

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