From 3rd edition onward, it's been just another type of spell. Prior to that it had optional psionics as magic sections.
I'm not sure what is covered in the OGL/SRD and what isn't. So I think it is probably a very terrible idea for me just to quote whole sections of the psionics books to prove you wrong.
Let me just say that in those 3e books that there is a clear distinction that psionics is its own thing. There is an option rule that is proposed that allows what is called "magic-psionics transparency" which allows.. well things like detect magic to sense psionics. However, prior to this that was not even a thought let alone a proposed Optional rule.
In 4e books, which I'm sure isn't allowed in OGL/SRD, it specifies that psionics is its own power source. So is divine and arcane power sources. This actually bothered me as monks then became psionic but that is beside the point. Yes, in this way it is another kind of magic but in this way it is also an equal branch of magic, as arcane or divine are. I tend not to use 4e as it is a poor example, creating martial and primal power sources too. But it does follow the pattern of
all editions having psionic as NOT arcane, so it isn't too poor of one.
Miswell said:
I'm asking for more than just "because" and "tradition". Give me the REASON it is important to you that it not be arcane. There must be something?
You say that "because" and "tradition" aren't allowed. Why not? Seems kind of arbitrary.
Further, what reasons have you to change it, outside of it being a change? You are (arbitrarily) not allowed to use class structure or subclasses as reasons.
Miswell said:
Tovec said:
The point is, if they're going to have a difference between TWO sources (arcane, divine) then they should have THREE in total (psionics) instead.
WHY?
Here you were talking about why there should be three types, or why there should be two?
If you say "why there should be three," and assume there should be TWO, then I ask why not ONE.
Miswell said:
Some magic is sourced by deities or through an intermediary of a deity. Other magic is not. Why is psionics NOT arcane, given arcane just means "magic that isn't divine in nature"?
A. That is not the definition of arcane.
B. Nor is that the definition of the split.
C. Because psionics is NOT arcane. Just as arcane is NOT divine. It is a property of being arcane/psionic in relation to divine/arcane(and divine).
D. You STILL exclude druids, fiend-worshipers, and pretty much all divine casters that are NOT a cleric with that definition. STILL.
Miswell said:
Tovec said:
Short answer:
Why aren't psions really just wizards?
The same reason that clerics aren't.
Psions obtain their source of power from a deity.
Um.. no they don't.
Miswell said:
Tovec said:
Explain the second and I'll explain the first.
I just did.
You really REALLY didn't.
Even assuming you meant that..
*Clerics* obtain their source of power from a deity.
That doesn't answer why they aren't arcane any more than saying
*Psions* obtain their source of power from their mind.
So, as you didn't answer that one, I'll propose another which is more in line with my reasoning:
Why aren't psions really just wizards?
The same reason wizards aren't clerics.
You answer why wizards aren't clerics WITHOUT saying arcane magic =/= divine.
And I'll do by best to answer why psions aren't wizards without saying psionics =/= arcane (or divine).