In fact, the difference between the "source of power" between Sorcerers and Psions has always escaped me. What exactly is the difference between a genetic predisposition to spontaneous non-divine
arcane-spell abilities (Sorcerers) and predisposition to spontaneous non-divine
spell-like abilities (Psions)? That already seems like a pretty fine, and not very meaningful, difference. Is moving an object with your "mind" really so different than moving an object with your hand gestures and your mind, such that it requires an entirely different source of that magical-seeming effect?
(First quote taken out of order, but it works with the following better.)
Okay, this might solve a lot of problems I (and others) have with the Mage superclass. Wizards can be arcane, get magic from sigils or from whatever you like. They are prepared and all that.
Warlocks can then be (along with others) divine, forming pacts with divine beings (good or evil).
Sorcerers (as you said) can be psionic in nature now. Joining psionic classes as their power in inborn/innate.
I get that some people prefer it that way. What I don't get is why it matters so much, given the differences seem pretty vague.
Also agreed.
But if there is going to be a difference between arcane and divine then there should also be one for psionic. If not, then I don't care either way.
Mind you, this mostly comes up as it affects the mage class. Which people don't feel it should. Even 4e - the most unlike of the editions - defined psionics as its own thing. How far from the crowd do you have to be to have all editions agreeing that psionics is a different thing, including 4e?