This is essentially the crux of the argument being discussed in This Thread, and I figured it deserved a thread of its own.
So, the contention:
Subschools are a part of a superschool, and all (Subschool) spells are contained within that Superschool. (Scrying) for Divination, (Shadow) for Illusion, (Healing) for Conjuration, et cetera. Is it possible to have a spell that is part of a (Subschool), but be part of another superschool? For example, is a Necromancy (Calling) spell possible?
If the 8 schools of magic are mutually exclusive, that is, if a spell is in either one school or another and not both, then you could not have a Necromancy (Calling) spell because (Calling) spells are Conjuration spells, and there's no such thing as a Necrojuration spell.
If, on the other hand, the schools are not mutually exclusive, then you could easily have a spell that was simultaneously a Necromancy, a Conjuration, and a (Calling) spell.
Please, this is not a question of what should be, but what is. That is another thread altogether.
So, are the 8 schools of magic mutually exclusive?
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Points to consider:
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So. Is there concrete, explicit evidence that the 8 schools of magic are mutually exclusive? Or, lacking that, is there a proponderance of circumstancial evidence that would suggest that the 8 schools of magic are mutually exclusive?
OR
Is there concrete, explicit evidence that the 8 schools of magic are not mutually exclusive? Or, lacking that, is there a proponderance of circumstancial evidence that would suggest that the 8 schools of magic are not mutually exclusive?
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If anyone would like me to add a Point To Consider, please suggest it to me as such, and I will edit it in for anyone who comes into the discussion to read at the beginning.
So, the contention:
Subschools are a part of a superschool, and all (Subschool) spells are contained within that Superschool. (Scrying) for Divination, (Shadow) for Illusion, (Healing) for Conjuration, et cetera. Is it possible to have a spell that is part of a (Subschool), but be part of another superschool? For example, is a Necromancy (Calling) spell possible?
If the 8 schools of magic are mutually exclusive, that is, if a spell is in either one school or another and not both, then you could not have a Necromancy (Calling) spell because (Calling) spells are Conjuration spells, and there's no such thing as a Necrojuration spell.
If, on the other hand, the schools are not mutually exclusive, then you could easily have a spell that was simultaneously a Necromancy, a Conjuration, and a (Calling) spell.
Please, this is not a question of what should be, but what is. That is another thread altogether.
So, are the 8 schools of magic mutually exclusive?
----
Points to consider:
- 2nd Edition had spells that were part of two different schools.
- 3e and 3eR spells have all been explicitly pigeon-holed in one school or another, with a few exceptions (see next bullet).
- There are "Universal" spells that belong to no school whatsoever. Or perhaps do they belong to all schools?
- There are no core rules examples of (Subschool) spells that are labeled as part of another superschool.
- The flavor of spells in schools crosses boundaries. (Healing could easily be Necromantic, Complete Arcane Conjuration spells step on Evocation's toes, et cetera)
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So. Is there concrete, explicit evidence that the 8 schools of magic are mutually exclusive? Or, lacking that, is there a proponderance of circumstancial evidence that would suggest that the 8 schools of magic are mutually exclusive?
OR
Is there concrete, explicit evidence that the 8 schools of magic are not mutually exclusive? Or, lacking that, is there a proponderance of circumstancial evidence that would suggest that the 8 schools of magic are not mutually exclusive?
----
If anyone would like me to add a Point To Consider, please suggest it to me as such, and I will edit it in for anyone who comes into the discussion to read at the beginning.