Wombat
First Post
Henry said:Wasn't the percentage of people who could read higher pre-Dark Ages? (Can't recall.)
Sorta depends on how you count it.
In the "Dark Ages" you have a forced-mixing (read: invasion, assault, running away from the other barbarians on THEIR backs, etc.) of illiterate/pre-literate germanic tribal peoples with the more-or-less literate Greco-Roman peoples. So on the one hand you have people with pretty much zero literacy and people who have full literacy, but only in certain social classes, and partial literacy, in a lower sliver of the social orders.
So, the literacy rate both lowers and raises, depending on how you look at it
