Looking for either a RL historical example or a convincing legal argument for my campaign. In the primary kingdom they practice something very close to male-preference primogeniture. Basically eldest surviving male child inherits titles, if there are no male children eldest female child inherits. Then from there to siblings, etc. (That's the difference - look for female children before going to alternate heirs.)
We have a case where someone had forfitted their titles and their son took them up. If they later had a child and the son died without heir, would that child be in line to inherit?
I'm not looking for "whatever makes the story right" or "I'd do X" - I'm looking for either a legalistic (even if completely made up) explanation of Yes or No, or an actual historical precedent so I could then go look up why it went that way. As a side note, one of my players is an actual lawyer - consider this world building.
en.wikipedia.org