EpicureanDM
Explorer
You could have done this additional Google search before you pulled the trigger on Black's.Fair enough, though it might have been more helpful if you'd specifically cited that you were referring to controlling law.
You could have done this additional Google search before you pulled the trigger on Black's.Fair enough, though it might have been more helpful if you'd specifically cited that you were referring to controlling law.
Yes, I know that. Congratulations on spotting my clever, Socratic traps.Your question presumes there must be some legally controlling source such as a law for the term sublicense such that the source determines it's meaning.
Most often in contract law it's not a law that determines the meaning of a term but either a) the contract itself or b) case law/precedent.
In general, the person throwing out specific terms (that aren't presumed to be widely known) should be the one to cite them, as a general guideline in favor of avoiding confusion and abetting discourse. "You should have done research in order to understand what I meant" is far less conducive in that regard.You could have done this additional Google search before you pulled the trigger on Black's.
I made no comment on the trustworthiness of it. In fact I think it's as likely to be trustworthy as untrustworthy.
But one must be careful with leaks. Sometimes the leaker is doing it to shine a light of warning. Sometimes the company itself is doing it to gauge reaction so they can either hold firm or soften their stance before officially releasing something.
Your reply struck me as snarky, so that's how I responded. If you didn't intend it that way, then let's chalk it up to misunderstanding tone on the Internet and move on.In general, the person throwing out specific terms (that aren't presumed to be widely known) should be the one to cite them, as a general guideline in favor of avoiding confusion and abetting discourse. "You should have done research in order to understand what I meant" is far less conducive in that regard.
Legally it would be easy enough to structure a company such that one branch of the company publishes under OGL 1.0 and the other OGL 1.1 without having the issue you propose (even if I fully agreed it could/would work the way you describe which I don't) - so I don't see the point in them even attempting what you suggest here.Yeah, generally you have to have some sort of superficial "I agree" and usually in software licenses using the software is a "de-facto" agreement (with court support, at least under US Law). So if you create something under One D&D's OGL you are de-facto agreeing that anything you made under 1.0 or 1.0A has been replaced with 1.1. This means that if, say, Paizo published ONE adventure for One D&D under OGL 1.1 then they just handed ALL of Pathfinder and Starfinder over to Wizards with a perpetual, irrevocable license to do whatever they want. Hence, the "Gotcha." Wizards could, in turn, post a 30-day notice revoking all usage on their website and still reprint anything Paizo made consequence and repercussion free. Although that might get a little tricky with trademark law and it's still a bit of a mess but in theory it could happen.
Why? Just Why?Yes, I know that. Congratulations on spotting my clever, Socratic traps.
Works for me.Your reply struck me as snarky, so that's how I responded. If you didn't intend it that way, then let's chalk it up to misunderstanding tone on the Internet and move on.