Take a person (person A), of average intelligence. Pick person B at random from the population. There's a probability P (since A is average, P=50%), that person B will be more intelligent than A.
Now, pick person B' from the population, based upon the fact that B' has a higher IQ than A. There's some probability P' that he will be more intelligent than A. The correlation between IQ and intelligence means that P'>P. It does not ensure B' is smarter, it only indicates it is more likely.
Right. Spot on! I'm with you.
But I'm not saying every gamer is smarter than every non-gamer. I'm stating that in aggregate the thousands of people who play RPGs are smarter than the millions who don't.
So, if IQ correlates to intelligence, and gamers have higher than average IQ, then the probability that they are more intelligent than average is greater than the probability that a similarly sized group picked at random will be more intelligent than average.
I'm still with you.
Extending that to saying gamers *will* be more intelligent is a weak form of causation argument.
Obviously, this is some term from analytical philosophy that I am not privy to. My terminology comes from analyzing public opinion polling for politics. Given the numerical scale of what we're talking about (ie. thousands and thousands of gamers), you have to admit that it is vastly more likely that gamers are more intelligent than the average population. We're doing social science here so nobody is going to argue for the 100% certainty of their position. But even by your own logic, surely you must admit that even if what I am saying is not certain to be true, it is more likely to be true than your position.
The way you are structuring your argument makes it impossible to compare groups of people. The way I understand your thinking, you must dispute every poll, every piece of market research you ever read.
OK, now, problems with your language:
IQ correlates to many things. Intelligence may be one.
Nice modal language here.
Economic and educational status are others.
Where did the modal language go?
If we understand that intelligence, given the arbitrariness of the term, is what the D&D manual says it is, rather than some vast culturally trascendent super-category of human worth and survival potential, clearly literacy and numeracy vary directly with intelligence because that's practically all that intelligence is.
Saying that higher IQ indicates higher intelligence instead of the others chooses intelligence as the particular cause of the sample's higher IQ. When, statistically speaking, it may be that gamers are of lower intelligence, but generally higher educational and/or economic status, and we'd see the same elevated IQ.
If we accept that intelligence is culturally-based and perceptible only through learned skills, of course access to training in those skills will positively correlate to intelligence. I'm not looking for some kind of transcendental value for the human mind -- such a thing is impossible to create. What I am looking at is people's ability at certain skills: logic, mathematics, language. To me, intelligence is what you can do not what you could do.
Simply put - there are many possible sources of elevated IQ. You singled out one. That's an implicit causation argument.
I'm guessing that this is another term from a discipline I'm not in; so I will resist the temptation to deal with it literally.
Same problem as with IQ. Literacy and numeracy competence may correleate with intelligence.
Here's the problem right here. We are operating from different definitions of intelligence. What is your definition? To me, literacy and numeracy skills don't merely correlate to intelligence, they are components of it. All intelligence is to me is proficiency with literacy+numeracy+logic. I don't think we can proceed any further in this argument until you come up with what definition you are using for intelligence.
But they also correlate with economic and educational status, among other things. So, those barriers may be selecting for intelligence. But they may be selecting us to be middle class or highly educated, something else, or a mixture of things. We cannot say which one.
Why are we isolating one thing? In my understanding of statistics, we are selecting for all those things. I don't understand how you are arguing that because we are also selecting for education and income, we cannot therefore be selecting for intelligence.
It's as though you are arguing that because we are selecting for membership in the Republican Party, we cannot be selecting for whiteness; obviously, if we develop selection criteria that choose Republicans, we can expect that our selection criteria will also be more likely to choose white people.