D&D 5E Conditions vs Arcane Ward


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We picture the arcane ward as a barrier that shimmers around the Wizard. It's not on his body. I think the description eludes to that, but I can't recall.
Therefor it makes little sense that riders on damaging attacks effect the Wizard of they fail to bypass his ward.

By the same token however, if he has resistance to damage on HIM, the ward does not benefit from that resistance.
 

For example the aforementioned wizard has 20hp left to his arcane ward, he is struck by a Paladin using blinding smite. He takes 15hp damage from the attack (which the ward absorbs) does he or doesn't he have to make a saving throw or be blinded? Or better still he is invisible and is struck by the same paladin using branding smite and takes only 10 hp damage which the ward absorbs is he now visible or not?
You need to check the wording of the spells.
BOth Blinding and Branding trigger from *hitting* the target. You hit the wizard, the damage was just applied elsewhere. So the conditions still trigger.

If a spell has a condition that triggers off of 'damaging' a target, then it would not trigger.
 

I agree, that is why I like the life draining ability it directly depends upon damaging. Just like the concentration mechanic.

The ghoul ability is included as an effect of a claw attack so I guess that could point to the 'poison-like' interpretation dependent upon 'damaging' the target. Hmm. That works-- poison and disease based attacks require that the target be damaged (works with the way poison is described in the dmg) and all magic attacks only require a successful attack 'hit' regardless of damage inflicted or a lack therof (unless specified).

Thanks

MK
 


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