Firstly, if this is not a later medieval campaign, it's not a cash economy. Most currency is in labour (even nobles don't have large amounts of coin).
While I agree that a true medieval campaign is not a cash economy, I don't find this a terribly meaningful objection to the question. Whether their exists currency as a medium of exchange or not, all currency is just labor. If I don't have a token to represent this labor, and I'm forced to trade the labor or goods directly for other labor or goods, the labor or goods I am trading can still be valued in monetary terms - even if in fact, coinage has not yet been invented in the society. Cash poor economies still have currencies, it's just not usually in coin. Easily commoditizable items end up getting used in place of coin, and become a defacto set of currencies by which goods and services are denominated. In a medieval society, these basic currencies might be things like 'bushels of wheat', 'bundles of staves', 'ricks of firewood', 'lambs', 'oxen', and hours of labor. The fact that these things are being traded rather than metal coins, doesn't really change their value. It just means we don't have a way to symbolize the value and thus suffer from various inefficiencies in trying to make exchanges.
I would suggest that almost no one goes out to 'earn money' even today. We don't value the money as a thing in and of itself, but what we can buy with it. Lacking that medium of exchange, I would still go out to work and my labor would still have value, it just wouldn't be measured in coin. If we say, "A copper piece equals a dollar", what we are saying is that we think a copper piece has about as much buying power as a dollar, and buys a dollar's worth of goods and services. That is a meaningful comparison. The main problem with it is not that medieval people didn't have a lot of coinage. If they didn't have coins at all, we could still use an abstraction like "Lets assume a copper piece buys a peck of wheat. If we knew how many pecks of wheat buys a cow, we could price cows in copper pieces." The big problem we have is that the price of goods relative to each other has changed drastically due to mechanization. The price of a nail relative to the price of a bushel of wheat has fallen greatly since the middle ages. If we answered the question, "How many nails would a bushel of wheat buy?", by looking at the prices of modern machined nails, we'd get an answer that wasn't consistent to the implied setting where machined nails didn't actually exist and had to be made by hand.
But if that wasn't the case, and the price of goods relative to each other had remained constant, then as soon as we figured out the value of a copper piece in dollars by seeing what a copper piece could buy and looking up the modern price for that same good, we could extrapolate the entire price list by looking at the modern price of the good and converting its price to 'copper pieces' according to the exchange rate we noted. The fact that copper pieces were scarce in the society in question wouldn't change this at all. Scarcity of coin, as with any other sort of economic scarcity, only increases the value of coinage. But this distortion would have already been accounted for when we set our exchange rate.
To usefully make use of the exchange rate between dollars and copper pieces, we have to be very careful to select goods whose price relative to labor probably hasn't changed all that much. A bushel of wheat in the USA isn't a good exchange, because wheat is mechanically produced here with an efficiency greater than 3-4 times that of medieval shallow till broadcast planting. But the price in a bushel of wheat relative to labor in a region still practicing subsistence farming probably hasn't changed all that much, and is certainly within the margin of error. Conversely, the price of non-imported handmade goods in the USA relative to the price of labor probably hasn't changed all that much, and for those items our exchange rate between dollars and copper pieces probably gives us a very good idea of the price a medieval might have paid for a similar item. For example, the price of hand tailored clothing, handmade furniture, handmade fight quality armor, if converted at say $65 to the silver piece, IMO actually gives a useful and meaningful set of prices for such goods. In the event that for example, you find your PC's lugging the armoire and the credenza out of the dungeon as treasure, googling up the price of an antique or modern handmade piece and being armed with a conversion rate is not IMO a bad idea in terms of consistency, believability and coherency.
In particular, it will probably avoid a serious problem I often see in price lists generated by less rigorous means, and that is that the price of goods in the list relative to each other is distorted. For example, in 1e, the price of labor was generally in s.p., but the price of adventuring goods was in g.p. A savvy investor wanting to play Papers and Paychecks, could buy labor, convert the labor into some simple good, and then convert the good into g.p. The only way to correct for this, and indeed the correction that would occur in the real world, would be to either inflate the value of the labor or deflate the value of the good. But IMO, it would be better to just have the prices in equilibrium to begin with, even if most people never notice the problem and fewer still capitalize on it.
Also, the home ownership rate is far, far lower - the vast majority of people are tenant farmers, and by tenant, that means they provide their labour, not money
This is really a meaningless distinction. Providing money is providing your labor, and providing labor is providing money. What you mean is that they provided labor and not coin. But this is only partially true. The lord also was coin poor and in general greatly preferred to be paid in coin whenever he could be. While taxes weren't usually paid in coin, it wasn't unusual to negotiate payment that had been specified by the tenant contract in corvee or bundles of staves or lambs or bushels of wheat in coin, seeing as the Lord could then use that coin to buy bundles of staves, lambs, or wheat if he wanted or if he didn't really need such things, he could buy a new gorget or a pound of nails. Over time, coin became the preferred payment method, and as silver and copper mining was mechanized in various places in Europe, people became less cash poor and more and more transactions were negotiated in coin. This was still at first really just another form of bartering, but eventually as the transaction became more common and the value of coin tended to stabilize, you start seeing taxes required to be paid in coin.
In short, I don't think the objection that middle ages were cash poor really nullifies the usefulness of having a rough idea of a coins purchasing power in modern terms. Rather, if you want to simulate a cash poor economy, simply adjust the valuation of coinage until it becomes something people are unlikely to have in significant quantities and adjust the percentage of stored wealth they have in coin. I seriously doubt many people however need that much depth to their economic simulation.