Cedric
First Post
Artoomis said:Instantaneous. That's the real key.
What happens after the spell is cast - what is left?
For feeblemind, the victim has INT 1 and CHA 1 with some explanation of what that means.
That's it. Is there any residual magical effect? No.
Okay, then, what happens when BE is cast? It should reverse the instantaneous effect.
But what about that "until" text. Hmmm.. What about it? The spell itself has been used up - nothing remains but the CHA 1 and INT 1. Nothing. There is no magical effect to prevent BE from working, so it must indeed work.
So what about if, for argument's sake, the spell was permananet? Would that make a difference? Most assuradely.
Now we try and cast BE. Is there anything that could prevent it form working? Sure, The spell is permanent, thus still in effect. That means if the spell says BE won't work, it won't. Period. Assuming you think the "until" language actually would prevent BE form working then, in the case of this being permanent rather than instantaneous, it would not work.
This is not even a stetch. It's just the way instantaneous spells work. Now it was very nice of the author to provide a list of spells that would remove the Feebleminded state - it's just a shame he did not include Break Enchantment in that list. He did not need to for it to work, of course, because the spell is "instantaneous," but it certainly has caused much confusion here.
I'm not sure why we are back to this, there are numerous examples in the book that flatly disagree with you.
Imprisonment, very much leaves behind a residual magical effect, despite being instantaneous.
Just because the "spell energy" passes instantly, doesn't mean the consequence or result of the spell isn't also magical by it's own nature.
There is nothing to support your supposition that "the magic is gone and no longer can dictate conditions."