KarinsDad said:
The actual text is:
"You can chain any spell that specifies a single target and has a range greater than touch."
Your definition of the phrase "specifies a single target" is different than other people's.
Your definition precludes any spell description that does not have the word "Target:" in its choice of aiming the spell.
Exactly.
Nowhere in the rules does it state that this is a proper definition of the phrase "specifies a single target".
Read the PHB lately? Specifically the section on aiming and targetting spells?
It doesn't state anywhere that a single target effect like a ray does not qualify. It is still a single target and it is still specified that way by default.
Ray doesn't specify a target. Target is a defined term in 3e.
Your definition precludes any spell description that does have the word "Target:" in its choice of aiming the spell, but allows the spell to be targeted at one or more targets.
Exactly. They don't specify a single target. They specify that it can affect multiple targets. .
Nowhere in the rules does it state that this is a proper definition of the phrase "specifies a single target".
If it allows more than one target, then it's not specifying a single target, now is it?
It doesn't state anywhere that a multiple target spell which can affect a single target, like Magic Missile, does not qualify.
Magic Missile doesn't specify a single target, now does it?
You are pretending that your interpretation is somehow the only correct one, but you have yet to prove that in any way.
When you can prove that "specify a single target" actually means "specifies one or more targets" I might agree with you. Until then, it seems pretty clear to me.
To many of us, a single target is a single target. If the spell can be cast on a single target and it has a range greater than touch, then it qualifies.
If the feat only required that the spell "can be cast on a single target" then I might agree with you. However, it says that it must specify a single target. To me, the phrase"must specify" equivalent to "must require". I don't see how you can read it any other way and still have it make sense in that context.
Having a single target be a possibility is not nearly the same as requiring a single target.
Ours too is an interpretation. But, it is no better or no worse an interpretation than your method.
Since you keep trying to ignore the fact that the says the spell must specify a single target, I think your interpretation is worse.
Now, if you could point to a rule where the phrase "specifies a single target" has the definition that you prescribe to it, then you would be correct. But, I can give you an example where this should not hold up: Dispel Magic. It can be an area, or it can be a single target. Are you claiming that if you cast a Targeted Dispel, that just because a Dispel Magic can be cast as an Area Dispel, the fact that it does not specify only a single target disqualifies it for the Chain Spell feat? In fact, the Area portion of Dispel Magic is listed under "Target or Targets", whereas it should be listed under "Effect". Hmmmm.
[edit: reread the Dispel Magic spell and changed my mind]
It can be cast on more than one form. One form specifies a Target, another specifies Area.
If you cast it in the form that specifies a single target, it would seem to be a valid spell for Chaining. If you don't, it can't be chained.
Magic missile doesn't have more than one form of the spell. It's always creates the same number of missles (i.e. you can't choose to have it generate less missiles), and can always affect multiple targets.
You are already claiming that if you cast a Magic Missile at a single target, that it does not qualify. Is Dispel Magic any different than Magic Missile? If so, how?
See above.
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