Yup, I used a d6 roll to resolve Skandiks of Ossary vs the Invincible Overlord! Skandiks won.You can also use the same dice to solve a war between two race, with a 6 the Kenku war bands utterly destroy the hobgoblin army!

Yup, I used a d6 roll to resolve Skandiks of Ossary vs the Invincible Overlord! Skandiks won.You can also use the same dice to solve a war between two race, with a 6 the Kenku war bands utterly destroy the hobgoblin army!
I was going to quote this bit at some point. It just further shows that even NPCs created with classes still don't (along with dwarven clerics, etc.) follow the same rules as PCs.Random NPC quote from page11 that again doesn't distinguish between an NPC and "monster", but I thought was interesting and didn't have a better place to put it.
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I do!All of these questions about the physics of the setting makes me think "poor chemistry, nobody cares about IT".
Me as the DM: I'm gonna need ya to roll a Beer Holding check there.Me as the player: "Oh yeah? Hold my beer..."
If you're going to include monsters with abilities that worked like spells, then 3e didn't require it, either. If you're talking about humanoid NPCs, then starting with 1e they were statted out. Brigands in 1e were 0 level, which is why they didn't have a single hit die(class level) and only a few hit points. The leaders were all NPCs with class levels. The same with elves, gnomes, dwarves, etc. Their leaders all have class levels, usually multiclass. It was expected for any NPC that was above average and not a monster to be a PC class of some sort.Repeating a thing over and over again does not make it true. Yes, there were classed NPCs in every edition of D&D. But there were also unclassed monster statted style NPCs such as "brigands" in every edition of D&D, as well as various monsters that referenced PC abilities in various ways from spells to "fights as a x level fighter." Please stop acting like what you are saying is some absolute truth when it is clear you are cherry picking to make you seem right. It is not adding to the discussion in any way.
And here we are making the arbitrary distinction between "monster" and NPC to keep an argument going that has little bearing on the actual question posed by the thread: do YOU think that NPCs and monsters should have to sue the same rules as PCs? The argument over whether a brigand is an NPC or monster is irrelevant, as is the same question for the "archmage" in 5E. It's not important. What is important is can that brigand have abilities unavailable to the PCs, and can that archmage know spells the PCs can't.If you're going to include monsters with abilities that worked like spells, then 3e didn't require it, either. If you're talking about humanoid NPCs, then starting with 1e they were statted out. Brigands in 1e were 0 level, which is why they didn't have a single hit die(class level) and only a few hit points. The leaders were all NPCs with class levels. The same with elves, gnomes, dwarves, etc. Their leaders all have class levels, usually multiclass. It was expected for any NPC that was above average and not a monster to be a PC class of some sort.
I'm a brewer by background. Can I have advantage?Me as the DM: I'm gonna need ya to roll a Beer Holding check there.
Why the hell not.I'm a brewer by background. Can I have advantage?
As someone who was part of that rabbit hole discussion, I agree with you. It's not relevant and I shouldn't have been pulled in.And here we are making the arbitrary distinction between "monster" and NPC to keep an argument going that has little bearing on the actual question posed by the thread: do YOU think that NPCs and monsters should have to sue the same rules as PCs? The argument over whether a brigand is an NPC or monster is irrelevant, as is the same question for the "archmage" in 5E. It's not important. What is important is can that brigand have abilities unavailable to the PCs, and can that archmage know spells the PCs can't.
So there's nothing arbitrary about it. The distinction between monster NPCs and other NPCs has been clear since at least 1e. It was clear in 2e. Clear in 3e. I assume clear in 4e and clear in 5e. Treating the clear subcategories as different is the way it has always been.And here we are making the arbitrary distinction between "monster" and NPC to keep an argument going that has little bearing on the actual question posed by the thread:
Why would I think that when they are clearly different subcategories of NPCs? When it comes to wage earners you don't treat the subcategory of "below the poverty line" the same as the subcategory "middle class," so why would I expect two very different NPC subcategories to be treated the same?do YOU think that NPCs and monsters should have to sue the same rules as PCs?
Not in 1e they didn't. In 1e, 2e and 3e they swung melee weapons and/or shot at people with bows/crossbows. An NPC "archmage" in all three of those editions would be a high level statted PC class wizard. This change in the way non-monster NPCs work happened I think in 4e and remains in 5e. It wasn't present in 1e, 2e or 3e.The argument over whether a brigand is an NPC or monster is irrelevant, as is the same question for the "archmage" in 5E. It's not important. What is important is can that brigand have abilities unavailable to the PCs, and can that archmage know spells the PCs can't.