hong said:In the rules for the English language, on which the rules for D&D are based.
Then the rule does not exist.
As I have pointed out earlier (and it has yet to be disproved) WotC does not consistently use their rules IAW with the rules of English language - if they did then this basis would apply (IMO) but since it has been proven that they do not - making the assumption that the rules of English language apply is simply incorrect. That is a cherry picking reading of the rules.
No, because there is a difference between "equivalent to invisibility for the purpose of X" and "equivalent to invisibility for all purposes". Pay attention.
I am paying attention. But you have not made a logical arguement. The rules do not, repeat do not, support "for the purposes of. . . " arguement here. That is cherry picking for an interpretation that is desired not for a meaning of the rules as written.
For what it's worth, if WotC had not set the precident that they redefine English words to mean something else I would go along with you - but they unfortuneately have consistently redefiened words and their usage to have different "meanings" then the language (and grammer) has.