A question for folks who seem bothered by rituals:
Did it bother you in 3E that a villian could have a magic item that performed the plot-necessary mechanics? Because 4E seems to be treating rituals and magic items in pretty much the same way. There will be a bunch of each in the book, and you can make up more as necessary.
And, really, why not? If casting a teleport ritual doesn't come at the cost of a cone-of-cold, is there really a difference between knowing a /ritual/ of teleport and having an /item/ of teleport? As far as I can tell, the only difference is that you can sell (or lose) an item of teleport while you can (presumably) teach someone else a ritual of teleport without losing it yourself.
It seems to me that there will probably be some sort of long-term charm ritual in the book. As a player facing a succubus, I expect to either face that ritual or some "secret devil" ritual that isn't in the book (but may be in that "infernal magic" supplement on my DM's shelf) that also has coherent rules that I need to discover in the game.
Which leads to the second half of my question: Do you think 4E will be different than what I've described? And, if so, how? And, if not, what is bothersome about this scenario?