EzekielRaiden
Follower of the Way
Er...no. The effect was first discussed in relation to artillery trajectories by Italian scientists Giovanni Batista Riccioli and Francesco Maria Grimaldi in the mid-1600s. It, or rather its absence (because they didn't detect it!) was originally used as an argument against the heliocentric model, because they believed a spinning Earth should produce a visible deflection (an artillery shell fired north should deflect east; no meaningful deflection was discovered). It was only given a name iafter 1835 when Gaspar-Gustave de Coriolis published an energy analysis of devices containing large rotating parts (e.g. waterwheels), and noted what he called the "compound centrifugal force". Over the next century, it became known first as the "acceleration of Coriolis" and then, by the early 20th century, the "Coriolis force" (or "Coriolis effect" for the observable phenomena caused by this effect). Prior to Coriolis' work, both Euler and Laplace had previously done the mathematical legwork to derive the correct formulae, but they're both already super famous for a bazillion other things as it is, so it's probably for the best that we named it after Coriolis instead.Perhaps, but the effect was first noticed on cruise liners crossing the equator which would have been using the same equipment all along, so ???
I'm not sure where you heard this cruise-liners theory, but as far as I can tell it has no actual evidence for it. You can do the calculation yourself (not that I expect you to do so), and you'll find that the magnitude of the Coriolis force affecting the water in a basin or toilet bowl is so vanishingly small, it cannot meaningfully affect the direction the water takes.
Should you want verification, both Scientific American and Snopes.com have articles discussing how the Coriolis force has no (meaningful) effect on the rotation of vortices in bathtubs or toilets.